IGCSE Physics 0625 Paper 21, May/June 2024

Question paper and mark scheme40 marks39 questions

Solve it on ExamPal

Practise

Untimed. Pick a letter and check as you go.

Start

Exam

Timed, with a clock you set, like sitting the real paper.

Start

Opens full screen.

Papers open in

Opening the question paper

Read as textThe questions and the mark scheme as plain text. Easier to read on a phone.

Question paper

0625/21 · May/June 2024

Download PDF
1

In which row are quantities correctly categorised into scalar quantities and vector quantities?

scalar quantitiesvector quantities
Amass and energyweight and acceleration
Bgravitational field strength and timeforce and electric field strength
Cspeed and momentumdistance and force
Ddistance and energyvelocity and temperature
2

Which name is given to the quantity of matter in an object? A density B mass C volume D weight

3

A body is moved from place X to place Y where the gravitational field strength is different. What happens to its mass and to its weight due to the move?

massweight
Achangeschanges
Bchangesstays the same
Cstays the samechanges
Dstays the samestays the same
4

The mass of an object is 2.5 kg. The volume of the object is 480 cm3. What is the density of the object? A 5.2×10−3 g / cm3 B 5.2 g / cm3 C 190 g / cm3 D 1.2×103 g / cm3

5

Four objects each have two forces acting on them. Which object is in equilibrium? A [Diagram showing two opposite forces of 1.0 N collinear along the horizontal axis towards each other] B [Diagram showing two parallel opposing forces of 1.0 N at opposite ends] C [Diagram showing two perpendicular forces of 1.0 N] D [Diagram showing two parallel forces of 1.0 N pointing in opposite directions at opposite edges]

Figure 1 of 4 for question 5
Figure 2 of 4 for question 5
Figure 3 of 4 for question 5
Figure 4 of 4 for question 5
6

A ball of mass m falls vertically and hits a hard surface. Its speed on hitting the surface is v1. It rebounds vertically upwards with speed v2. What is the change in momentum of the ball? A mv1 B mv2 C m(v1+v2) D m(v2−v1)

7

A stone is dropped from a tall tower and falls a distance of 50 m to the ground. The stone has a mass of 3.0 kg. At which speed does the stone hit the ground? A 17 m / s B 31 m / s C 54 m / s D 150 m / s

8

A coal-fired power station generates electricity. Coal is burned and the energy released is used to boil water. The steam from the water makes the generator move and this produces electricity. Which row gives the name of the energy store in the coal and the energy store of the moving generator?

coalgenerator
Achemicalhydroelectric
Bchemicalkinetic
Cgeothermalhydroelectric
Dgeothermalkinetic
9

A man puts some ice into a glass of water on a warm day. After a short time, he notices that the ice disappears and that water droplets appear on the outside of the glass. Which two changes of state are taking place? A condensation and freezing B condensation and melting C boiling and melting D freezing and evaporation

Figure 1 of 1 for question 9
10

Gas of volume 200 cm3 is trapped inside a container by a piston. The piston is pushed to the right and the volume of the gas decreases to 100 cm3. The temperature of the gas remains constant. Which row states the effect that this has on the kinetic energy of the gas particles and the force per unit area exerted by the particles colliding with the inside walls of the container?

kinetic energyforce per unit area
Adoublesdoubles
Bdoublesstays the same
Cstays the samedoubles
Dstays the samestays the same
Figure 1 of 2 for question 10
Figure 2 of 2 for question 10
11

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature? A [Graph showing a linear decrease from a maximum pressure to zero as volume increases] B [Graph showing pressure increasing non-linearly with increasing volume] C [Graph showing a straight line through the origin of pressure vs volume] D [Graph showing an inversely proportional curve (hyperbola) of pressure vs volume]

Figure 1 of 1 for question 11
12

During evaporation of a liquid, the most energetic particles escape. The temperature of the remaining liquid changes. Which row identifies where these particles escape from and describes the temperature change?

place from which the particles escapetemperature of remaining liquid
Abody of the liquiddecreases
Bbody of the liquidincreases
Csurface of the liquiddecreases
Dsurface of the liquidincreases
13

Wet clothes are put out on a line to allow the water in the clothes to evaporate. Which type of weather would cause the water to evaporate most quickly? A a cold day with no wind B a cold day with wind C a hot day with no wind D a hot day with wind

15

A solar water heater is designed to absorb energy from sunlight. Which surface texture and colour would be best for the solar water heater? A dull black B shiny black C dull white D shiny white

16

Which statement about waves is correct? A Waves do not transfer either energy or matter. B Waves transfer both energy and matter. C Waves transfer energy without transferring matter. D Waves transfer matter without transferring energy.

17

The angle of incidence of a ray of light incident on a plane mirror is gradually increased. To the nearest degree, what is the maximum possible angle between the incident and reflected rays? A 0∘ B 45∘ C 90∘ D 180∘

18

Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

incident lightangle of incidence
Ais in the less dense mediumless than the critical angle
Bis in the less dense mediumgreater than the critical angle
Cis in the more dense mediumless than the critical angle
Dis in the more dense mediumgreater than the critical angle
19

The diagram shows a ray of light passing from air into a transparent substance. What is the refractive index of the transparent substance? A 1.33 B 1.29 C 0.778 D 0.750

Figure 1 of 1 for question 19
20

The diagram shows a ray of light in an optical fibre. Which statement correctly explains the condition for the maximum transmission of light by the optical fibre? A The glass must slow the light as little as possible to make the critical angle for the fibre as large as possible. B The glass must slow the light as little as possible to make the critical angle for the fibre as small as possible. C The glass must slow the light as much as possible to make the critical angle for the fibre as large as possible. D The glass must slow the light as much as possible to make the critical angle for the fibre as small as possible.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 20
21

Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for detecting fake bank notes? A radio B microwaves C ultraviolet D X-rays

22

A sound wave travels at 330 m / s. The distance between the centre of a compression and the centre of the nearest rarefaction in the sound wave is 2.5 cm. What is the frequency of the sound wave? A 66 Hz B 130 Hz C 6600 Hz D 13 000 Hz

23

Which waves are used in the medical scanning of soft tissue? A gamma rays B infrared C microwaves D ultrasound

24

Which row describes suitable materials for use in a temporary magnet and in a permanent magnet?

temporary magnetpermanent magnet
Asoft ironsoft iron
Bsoft ironsteel
Csteelsoft iron
Dsteelsteel
25

A magnetic field is represented in the diagram by magnetic field lines. At which point is the magnetic field strongest? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 25
26

A student determines the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and an ammeter. Which circuit does she use? A [Circuit with voltmeter in series and ammeter in series with R] B [Circuit with voltmeter in parallel with R and ammeter in parallel below R] C [Circuit with voltmeter in series, resistor R, and ammeter in parallel with R] D [Circuit with ammeter in series with R and voltmeter connected in parallel across R]

Figure 1 of 4 for question 26
Figure 2 of 4 for question 26
Figure 3 of 4 for question 26
Figure 4 of 4 for question 26
27

A diode and a resistor are connected across a variable d.c. supply. Terminal X is initially positive and at a maximum value. The potential difference (p.d.) across XY is adjusted so that it changes, as shown by the graph. Which graph shows how the current in the circuit (from X to Y) varies during the same time interval? A [Graph showing current decreasing linearly and passing into negative values] B [Graph showing current increasing from negative to positive] C [Graph showing current decreasing linearly to zero and remaining at zero] D [Graph showing current constant at zero then decreasing into negative values]

Figure 1 of 1 for question 27
28

When a conductor in a complete circuit cuts across a magnetic field, a current is induced in the conductor. Which statement about the induced current is correct? A The induced current is in the same direction as the motion of the conductor. B The induced current is in the opposite direction to the motion of the conductor. C The direction of the induced current is in the same direction as the magnetic field. D The direction of the induced current opposes the change causing it.

29

The diagram shows a solenoid carrying an electric current. Which row compares the strength of the magnetic field due to the solenoid at points Y and Z with the strength of the magnetic field at point X?

magnetic field strength at Ymagnetic field strength at Z
Aequal to Xless than X
Bequal to Xgreater than X
Cgreater than Xless than X
Dgreater than Xgreater than X
Figure 1 of 2 for question 29
Figure 2 of 2 for question 29
30

A conducting wire is placed between the poles of a magnet. When an electric current in the wire is in the direction shown, then the force on the wire acts out of the page. Three statements of different conditions and how the wire is affected are given. 1 When the current is towards the top of the page and the direction of the magnetic field is unchanged, the force produced acts into the page. 2 When the current is towards the bottom of the page and the magnetic field is reversed, the force produced acts into the page. 3 When the current in the wire is alternating, the wire vibrates into and out of the page. Which statements are correct? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Figure 1 of 1 for question 30
31

Which types of electric current are in the primary coil and the secondary coil of a step-up transformer?

primary coilsecondary coil
Aa.c.a.c.
Ba.c.d.c.
Cd.c.a.c.
Dd.c.d.c.
32

A scientist fires alpha-particles at a very thin sheet of gold and detects the particles that pass through. Which statement about the results of the scattering experiment is correct? A Alpha-particles are attracted to the nucleus of the atoms in the metal sheet. B Half the mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus. C Most of the alpha-particles are deflected, showing that the nucleus is very dense. D Only a small number of alpha-particles are deflected, but some of these are deflected through large angles.

33

The notation represents the nucleus of a gold atom. 79197Au The relative charge on a proton is +1. What is the relative charge on the gold nucleus? A +79 B +118 C +197 D +276

34

An isotope of hydrogen has the nuclide notation 12H. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this isotope and what is the relative charge on the nucleus?

number of neutronsrelative charge
A1+1
B1+2
C2+1
D2+2
35

A radioactive source is placed near a detector. The radiation arriving at the detector from the source is measured for 10 minutes with different materials placed between the source and the detector.

material between source and detectorradiation detected / counts
none5626
sheet of paper5629
thick sheet of aluminium2226
thick sheet of lead255

Which types of radiation are emitted by the source? A α-particles and γ-rays B α-particles only C β-particles and γ-rays D β-particles only

Figure 1 of 2 for question 35
Figure 2 of 2 for question 35
36

The reading on a detector placed near a radioactive material is 536 counts per second. The background count rate is 44 counts per second. The half-life of the radioactive material is 34 hours. What is the reading on the detector after 68 hours? A 44 counts per second B 123 counts per second C 134 counts per second D 167 counts per second

37

A planet in the Solar System is at the point in its orbit where it is closest to the Sun. Which row is correct?

orbital speedenergy in gravitational potential store
Aat its maximumat its maximum
Bat its maximumat its minimum
Cat its minimumat its maximum
Dat its minimumat its minimum
38

What is the main process that powers the Sun? A burning of helium and oxygen B burning of hydrogen and oxygen C nuclear fusion of hydrogen to form helium D nuclear fission of helium to form hydrogen

39

A galaxy is 3.0×1020 km from the Earth. At which speed is the galaxy moving away from the Earth? A 660 km / s B 6600 km / s C 660 m / s D 6600 m / s

40

An astronomer observes a distant galaxy. The table shows how the distance and the speed of recession of the galaxy are determined. Which row is correct?

distancespeed of recession
Abrightness of a supernova in the galaxychange in wavelength of starlight from the galaxy
Bbrightness of a supernova in the galaxybrightness of the galaxy
Cbrightness of the galaxychange in wavelength of starlight from the galaxy
Dbrightness of the galaxybrightness of a supernova

Mark scheme

0625/21 · May/June 2024

Download PDF

Question 1

Answer: A

Question 2

Answer: B

Question 3

Answer: C

Question 4

Answer: B

Question 5

Answer: A

Question 6

Answer: C

Question 7

Answer: B

Question 8

Answer: B

Question 9

Answer: B

Question 10

Answer: C

Question 11

Answer: D

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: D

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: C

Question 17

Answer: D

Question 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Answer: B

Question 20

Answer: D

Question 21

Answer: C

Question 22

Answer: C

Question 23

Answer: D

Question 24

Answer: B

Question 25

Answer: A

Question 26

Answer: D

Question 27

Answer: D

Question 28

Answer: D

Question 29

Answer: A

Question 30

Answer: A

Question 31

Answer: A

Question 32

Answer: D

Question 33

Answer: A

Question 34

Answer: A

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: D

Question 37

Answer: B

Question 38

Answer: C

Question 39

Answer: A

Question 40

Answer: A

Questions

  1. 1
    Question 11 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  2. 2
    Question 21 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  3. 3
    Question 31 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  4. 4
    Question 41 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  5. 5
    Question 51 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  6. 6
    Question 61 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  7. 7
    Question 71 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  8. 8
    Question 81 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  9. 9
    Question 91 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  10. 10
    Question 101 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  11. 11
    Question 111 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  12. 12
    Question 121 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  13. 13
    Question 131 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  14. 15
    Question 151 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  15. 16
    Question 161 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  16. 17
    Question 171 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  17. 18
    Question 181 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  18. 19
    Question 191 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  19. 20
    Question 201 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  20. 21
    Question 211 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  21. 22
    Question 221 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  22. 23
    Question 231 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  23. 24
    Question 241 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  24. 25
    Question 251 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  25. 26
    Question 261 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  26. 27
    Question 271 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  27. 28
    Question 281 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  28. 29
    Question 291 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  29. 30
    Question 301 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  30. 31
    Question 311 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  31. 32
    Question 321 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  32. 33
    Question 331 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  33. 34
    Question 341 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  34. 35
    Question 351 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  35. 36
    Question 361 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  36. 37
    Question 371 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  37. 38
    Question 381 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  38. 39
    Question 391 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  39. 40
    Question 401 mark
    Mark scheme ›

More 0625 papers

Other papers from May/June 2024

Solve it on ExamPalStart