IGCSE Physics 0625 Paper 13, May/June 2023

Question paper and mark scheme40 marks40 questions

Solve it on ExamPal

Practise

Untimed. Pick a letter and check as you go.

Start

Exam

Timed, with a clock you set, like sitting the real paper.

Start

Opens full screen.

Papers open in

Opening the question paper

Read as textThe questions and the mark scheme as plain text. Easier to read on a phone.

Question paper

0625/13 · May/June 2023

Download PDF
1

Which piece of apparatus is used to measure the length of a copper rod of length approximately 2 cm? A digital timer B measuring cylinder C ruler D balance

2

The speed–time graph shows the motion of an object. How far does the object travel at constant speed? A 25 m B 50 m C 75 m D 125 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 2
3

A rock falls off a cliff onto a beach. The effect of air resistance on the rock is negligible. Which row describes the acceleration and speed of the rock as it falls?

accelerationspeed
Aconstantconstant
Bconstantincreasing
Cincreasingconstant
Dincreasingincreasing
4

Two rectangular blocks consist of different materials. Four different methods are suggested to compare the two masses. 1 Compare the accelerations with which they fall freely. 2 Compare the values of their lengths × breadths × heights. 3 Hang each in turn from the same spring. Compare the extensions. 4 Place one in the right-hand pan of a beam balance and the other in the left-hand pan. Which methods give a comparison of the two masses? A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 3 and 4 only D 4 only

5

A measuring cylinder containing 50 cm3 of water is put on a balance. A solid object is put in the cylinder and the water level rises to 75 cm3. What is the density of the object? A 0.80 g/cm3 B 2.4 g/cm3 C 2.8 g/cm3 D 8.4 g/cm3

Figure 1 of 2 for question 5
Figure 2 of 2 for question 5
6

A cyclist is travelling in a straight line along a horizontal road at a constant speed. A constant driving force F acts on the cyclist in the forward direction shown. Which statement about the magnitude of the frictional forces acting on the cyclist is correct? A The magnitude is equal to F. B The magnitude is smaller than F, but greater than zero. C The magnitude is greater than F. D The magnitude is zero.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 6
7

A beam is pivoted at P. A force is applied to the beam. Which distance is multiplied by the force to give the moment of the force about P? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 7
8

The diagram shows an unbalanced rod. Two loads X and Y can be moved along the rod. The rod turns in a clockwise direction, as shown. Which action could make the rod balance? A moving X to the left B moving X to the right C moving Y to the right D moving the pivot to the left

Figure 1 of 1 for question 8
9

It is important that an electric table lamp with a lamp shade does not get knocked over easily. Which statement is correct? A The centre of mass must be as low as possible. B The lamp must have a shade which is heavier than the base. C The lamp must have a narrow base. D The lamp shade must be wide.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 9
10

A bicycle braking system transfers energy from a kinetic energy store to an internal energy store. A motor converts energy from a chemical energy store (battery) to a kinetic energy store. What enables these energy transfers?

braking systemmotor
Aelectrical workmechanical work
Belectrical workelectrical work
Cmechanical workmechanical work
Dmechanical workelectrical work
11

A toy car is pushed a distance of 2.4 m with a force equal to 460 N. How much energy is transferred? A 190 J B 190 W C 1100 J D 1100 W

12

The engine of a motor vehicle develops a large power. Which statement is correct? A The driving force acting on the vehicle must be large. B The engine must have a very large volume. C The engine must transfer large amounts of energy each second. D The vehicle must be very fast.

13

A solid cube has sides 0.50 m long and a mass of 120 kg. It stands on the ground on one face. Which pressure does the cube exert on the ground? A 480 kg/m3 B 960 kg/m3 C 4700 N/m2 D 9400 N/m2

14

What is the lowest possible temperature (absolute zero) and what happens to the energy of particles at this temperature?

lowest possible temperature / ∘Cparticle energy
A−273particles have least kinetic energy
B−273particles have zero gravitational potential energy
C0particles have least kinetic energy
D0particles have zero gravitational potential energy
15

Which statement about the particles of a substance after condensation is correct? A They are close to each other and slide over each other. B They are close to each other and vibrate about fixed points. C They are far apart from each other and vibrate about fixed points. D They are far apart from each other and move freely within the container.

16

The diagram shows a flask designed to reduce the loss of thermal energy from a hot liquid. Which methods of thermal energy transfer are the silvered walls designed to reduce? A conduction, convection and radiation B conduction and convection only C conduction only D radiation only

Figure 1 of 1 for question 16
17

A drop of water from a tap falls onto the surface of some water of constant depth. Water waves spread out on the surface of the water. Which statement is correct? A The waves are longitudinal and travel at the same speed in all directions. B The waves are longitudinal and travel more quickly in one direction than in others. C The waves are transverse and travel at the same speed in all directions. D The waves are transverse and travel more quickly in one direction than in others.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 17
18

The optical image formed by a plane mirror is the same size as the object. Which row describes the other characteristics of the optical image formed?

distance from the mirrorreal or virtual
Asame as objectvirtual
Bsmaller than objectvirtual
Clarger than objectreal
Dsame as objectreal
Figure 1 of 1 for question 18
19

The diagram shows a partly completed scale drawing of an upright object placed 3 cm in front of a thin converging lens of focal length 2 cm. What is the nature of the image formed by this lens? A diminished, inverted and closer to the lens than the object B diminished, upright and further from the lens than the object C enlarged, inverted and closer to the lens than the object D enlarged, inverted and further from the lens than the object

Figure 1 of 1 for question 19
20

A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum. Which row is correct?

colour 1colour 2colour 3
Ablueyellowred
Bredblueyellow
Credyellowblue
Dyellowbluered
Figure 1 of 2 for question 20
Figure 2 of 2 for question 20
21

Which row matches a region of the electromagnetic spectrum to one of its uses?

regionuse
Agamma raysintruder alarms
Binfraredsatellite television
Cmicrowavesmobile (cell) phones
Dradio wavessterilising food
Figure 1 of 1 for question 21
22

A ship sounds its horn when it is 790 m from a cliff. A passenger on the ship hears the echo 4.8 s later. What is the speed of the sound? A 165 m/s B 330 m/s C 340 m/s D 1896 m/s

23

Which row gives the metal used to make the core of an electromagnet and one property of the electromagnet?

metalproperty
Aironpermanent magnet
Birontemporary magnet
Csteelpermanent magnet
Dsteeltemporary magnet
24

A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged. The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod. What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?

charge on clothparticles that moved
Anegativeelectrons
Bnegativeneutrons
Cpositiveelectrons
Dpositiveneutrons
25

A power supply of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 12 V is connected across a 3 Ω resistor. Which ammeter is most suitable to measure the current in the resistor? A an ammeter with a range 0–0.5 A B an ammeter with a range 0–1 A C an ammeter with a range 0–5 A D an ammeter with a range 0–50 A

26

The cost of electrical energy is $0.25 for each unit of 1 kWh. A 2200 W heater is switched on for 48 minutes. What is the cost of this use? A $0.44 B $0.55 C $26 D $440

27

The diagram shows six different electrical circuit components. Which circuit symbol is not present in the diagram? A resistor B voltmeter C generator D thermistor

Figure 1 of 2 for question 27
Figure 2 of 2 for question 27
28

The circuit shown contains three switches and four lamps P, Q, R and S. Which switches must be closed to light only lamps P and R? A switch 1 only B switch 1 and switch 2 C switch 1 and switch 3 D switch 2 and switch 3

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

An electric heater has a metal frame. The heating element is connected to the live and neutral wires of an a.c. supply. The metal frame is connected to the earth wire. Which row gives the correct connections for the fuse and the switch?

fuseswitch
Ain the earthin the live
Bin the earthin the neutral
Cin the livein the live
Din the livein the neutral
30

Which electrical device uses the turning effect produced by a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field? A a.c. generator B d.c. motor C relay D transformer

31

Four appliances all use an electric current to operate. Which appliance uses the magnetic effect of the current? A a heater B a light bulb C a relay D a remote controller

32

A student makes four different types of transformer. She counts the number of turns on the primary and secondary coils. She labels each transformer as either step-up or step-down. Which row shows the correct labels?

number of turns on the primary coilnumber of turns on the secondary coilstep-up or step-down transformer
A55step-up
B105step-up
C1020step-down
D2010step-down
33

How is electricity transmitted over large distances and why is it transmitted in this way?

howwhy
Aat high voltagefor safety
Bat high voltageto reduce energy loss
Cat low voltagefor safety
Dat low voltageto reduce energy loss
34

An atom of an element contains electrons, neutrons and protons. Which particles are found in the nucleus? A electrons and neutrons only B electrons and protons only C neutrons and protons only D electrons, neutrons and protons

35

A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown. 1735Cl What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine? A 17 B 18 C 35 D 52

36

What is a major source of background radiation? A cosmic rays B microwaves from mobile (cell) phones C nuclear power stations D visible light from the Sun

37

The graph shows the radioactive decay curve of a substance. What is the half-life of this substance? A 0.5 years B 5 years C 15 years D 30 years

Figure 1 of 1 for question 37
38

Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?

approximate time for the Earth to orbit the Sunapproximate time for the Moon to orbit the Earth
A1 day30 days
B30 days1 day
C365 days1 day
D365 days30 days
39

Which description of a galaxy is correct? A a collection of billions of stars B a collection of gaseous planets orbiting a star C a collection of rocky planets orbiting a star D all of the stars that exist

40

Light from distant stars is redshifted. What is redshift? A a decrease in observed wavelength caused by a star moving away from the Earth B a decrease in observed wavelength caused by a star moving towards the Earth C an increase in observed wavelength caused by a star moving away from the Earth D an increase in observed wavelength caused by a star moving towards the Earth

Mark scheme

0625/13 · May/June 2023

Download PDF

Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: B

Question 3

Answer: B

Question 4

Answer: C

Question 5

Answer: B

Question 6

Answer: A

Question 7

Answer: A

Question 8

Answer: A

Question 9

Answer: A

Question 10

Answer: D

Question 11

Answer: C

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: C

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: D

Question 17

Answer: C

Question 18

Answer: A

Question 19

Answer: D

Question 20

Answer: C

Question 21

Answer: C

Question 22

Answer: B

Question 23

Answer: B

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: C

Question 26

Answer: A

Question 27

Answer: D

Question 28

Answer: A

Question 29

Answer: C

Question 30

Answer: B

Question 31

Answer: C

Question 32

Answer: D

Question 33

Answer: B

Question 34

Answer: C

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: A

Question 37

Answer: B

Question 38

Answer: D

Question 39

Answer: A

Question 40

Answer: C

Questions

  1. 1
    Question 11 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  2. 2
    Question 21 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  3. 3
    Question 31 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  4. 4
    Question 41 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  5. 5
    Question 51 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  6. 6
    Question 61 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  7. 7
    Question 71 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  8. 8
    Question 81 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  9. 9
    Question 91 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  10. 10
    Question 101 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  11. 11
    Question 111 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  12. 12
    Question 121 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  13. 13
    Question 131 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  14. 14
    Question 141 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  15. 15
    Question 151 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  16. 16
    Question 161 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  17. 17
    Question 171 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  18. 18
    Question 181 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  19. 19
    Question 191 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  20. 20
    Question 201 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  21. 21
    Question 211 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  22. 22
    Question 221 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  23. 23
    Question 231 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  24. 24
    Question 241 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  25. 25
    Question 251 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  26. 26
    Question 261 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  27. 27
    Question 271 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  28. 28
    Question 281 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  29. 29
    Question 291 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  30. 30
    Question 301 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  31. 31
    Question 311 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  32. 32
    Question 321 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  33. 33
    Question 331 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  34. 34
    Question 341 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  35. 35
    Question 351 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  36. 36
    Question 361 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  37. 37
    Question 371 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  38. 38
    Question 381 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  39. 39
    Question 391 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  40. 40
    Question 401 mark
    Mark scheme ›

More 0625 papers

Other papers from May/June 2023

Solve it on ExamPalStart