A Level Physics 9702 Paper 13, May/June 2024

Question paper and mark scheme40 marks40 questions

Solve it on ExamPal

Practise

Untimed. Pick a letter and check as you go.

Start

Exam

Timed, with a clock you set, like sitting the real paper.

Start

Opens full screen.

Papers open in

Opening the question paper

Read as textThe questions and the mark scheme as plain text. Easier to read on a phone.

Question paper

9702/13 · May/June 2024

Download PDF
1

What is equal to 0.000005 J? A 5 mJ B 5 MJ C 5 μJ D 5 nJ

2

The measurement of a physical quantity may be subject to random errors and to systematic errors. Which statement is correct? A A systematic error cannot be reduced by adjusting the apparatus. B A systematic error results in a different reading each time the measurement is taken. C Random errors are always caused by the person taking the measurement. D Random errors can be reduced by taking the average of several measurements.

3

The Young modulus of the material of a wire is to be found. The Young modulus E is given by the equation shown. E=4FLπd2x The wire is extended by a known force and the following measurements are made. Which measurement has the largest effect on the uncertainty in the value of the calculated Young modulus?

measurementsymbolvalue
Alength of wire before force appliedL2.043±0.002 m
Bdiameter of wired0.54±0.02 mm
Cforce appliedF19.62±0.01 N
Dextension of wire with force appliedx5.2±0.2 mm
Figure 1 of 1 for question 3
4

Two physical quantities combined together as a product can produce a scalar quantity or a vector quantity. Which product of two quantities produces a scalar quantity? A (force)×(displacement of an object in the direction of the force) B (mass)×(acceleration of the mass) C (pressure)×(area on which the pressure acts) D (velocity)×(time for which an object has that velocity)

5

The diagram shows a velocity–time graph for an object moving in a straight line. What is the displacement during the last 2 seconds of the motion? A 6 m B 12 m C 18 m D 24 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 5
6

A block is moving along a horizontal frictionless surface. A constant force F and a constant resistive force of 5.0 N act on the block as it is moving in the direction of the force F, as shown. The graph shows the variation with time of the momentum of the block. What is the magnitude of force F? A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 5.0 N D 8.0 N

Figure 1 of 2 for question 6
Figure 2 of 2 for question 6
7

Newton’s third law describes two forces that are equal in magnitude and form a pair. Which description of the two forces in such a pair is not correct? A They act in opposite directions. B They act on different objects. C They are the same type of force. D They cause an object to be in equilibrium.

8

The graph shows the variation with time of the speed of a raindrop falling vertically through air. Which statement is correct? A The acceleration decreases to produce a steady speed. B The acceleration increases as the speed increases. C The air resistance decreases as the speed increases. D The resultant force increases as the speed increases.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 8
9

Which statement about a perfectly elastic collision between two objects is correct? A Total kinetic energy is conserved and the relative speed of approach equals the relative speed of separation. B Total kinetic energy is conserved but the relative speed of approach does not equal the relative speed of separation. C Total kinetic energy is not conserved and the relative speed of approach does not equal the relative speed of separation. D Total kinetic energy is not conserved but the relative speed of approach does equal the relative speed of separation.

10

The diagram shows the view from above of a sprinkler system used to water a garden. The sprinkler consists of a tube of length 0.15 m. The tube is pivoted in the middle and spins in a horizontal plane as it lets out jets of water from each end. The two water jets are in opposite directions to each other. Each water jet exerts a horizontal force of 3.0 N on the tube at right angles to the tube. What is the magnitude of the torque on the tube from the water jets? A 0 N m B 0.23 N m C 0.45 N m D 0.90 N m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 10
11

An object is held in equilibrium by three forces. The forces all act in the same plane. The diagram shows two of the forces that act on the object. The third force is missing from the diagram. What is the third force? A 36 N at 157∘ to the vertical B 36 N at 157∘ to the vertical C 55 N at 165∘ to the vertical D 55 N at 165∘ to the vertical

Figure 1 of 5 for question 11
Figure 2 of 5 for question 11
Figure 3 of 5 for question 11
Figure 4 of 5 for question 11
Figure 5 of 5 for question 11
12

The total number of forces acting on an object is two. The object is in equilibrium. Which statements about the forces are correct? 1 The two forces must have equal magnitudes. 2 The two forces must act in the same direction. 3 The two forces must act through the same point. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

13

The diagram shows the arrangement of atoms in a particular crystal. Each atom is at the corner of a cube. The mass of each atom is 3.5×10−25 kg. The density of the crystal is 9.2×103 kg m−3. What is the shortest distance between the centres of two adjacent atoms? A 3.8×10−29 m B 6.2×10−15 m C 3.4×10−10 m D 3.0×10−9 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 13
14

Four measuring cylinders are filled with the same liquid to the heights shown. At which position is the pressure the greatest?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 14
Figure 2 of 4 for question 14
Figure 3 of 4 for question 14
Figure 4 of 4 for question 14
15

In many filament lamps, as much as 92 J of energy is emitted as thermal energy for every 8 J of energy emitted as light. What is the efficiency of a filament lamp, as the percentage of electrical energy converted to light energy? A 8% B 9% C 91% D 92%

16

What is a unit of power? A J C−1 B J m−1 C J N−1 D J s−1

17

An object is in a uniform gravitational field. The graph shows how the change in gravitational potential energy ΔEP of the object varies with the vertical distance x moved by the object from a fixed point. Which graph shows how the gravitational force F acting on the object varies with distance x?

Figure 1 of 2 for question 17
Figure 2 of 2 for question 17
18

A block of mass 2.0 kg is released from rest on a slope. It travels 7.0 m down the slope and falls a vertical distance of 3.0 m. The block experiences a frictional force parallel to the slope of 5.0 N. What is the speed of the block after falling this distance? A 4.9 m s−1 B 6.6 m s−1 C 8.6 m s−1 D 10 m s−1

Figure 1 of 1 for question 18
19

Two wires, one made of brass and the other of steel, are stretched in an experiment. Both wires obey Hooke’s law during this experiment. The Young modulus for brass is less than the Young modulus for steel. Which graph shows how the stress varies with strain for both wires in this experiment?

Figure 1 of 3 for question 19
Figure 2 of 3 for question 19
Figure 3 of 3 for question 19
20

A sample of material is stretched by a tensile force to a point beyond its elastic limit. The tensile force is then reduced to zero. The force–extension graph is shown. Which area represents the net work done on the sample? A X B X+Y C Y+Z D Z

Figure 1 of 1 for question 20
21

A wire is fixed at one end and is extended by a force F1 acting on the other end. This causes the wire to have an elastic potential energy of 0.15 J. The force applied to the wire is now changed to a force F2. This causes the wire to have a new elastic potential energy of 0.60 J. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is the relationship between F1 and F2? A F1=2F2 B F1=4F2 C 2F1=F2 D 4F1=F2

Figure 1 of 1 for question 21
22

The diagram shows a representation of a wave on the screen of an oscilloscope. The y-gain is set to 3.5 mV cm−1. What is the amplitude of the wave? A 0.57 mV B 3.5 mV C 7.0 mV D 14 mV

23

A transverse progressive wave on a string has a wavelength of 12 cm and an amplitude of 1.5 cm. The speed of the wave on the string is 48 cm s−1. What is the distance travelled by a point on the string in a time of 2.0 s? A 12 cm B 24 cm C 48 cm D 96 cm

24

An ambulance siren emits a sound with a single frequency f. The ambulance travels towards, passes close to, and then travels away from a stationary observer. Which statement describes the frequency of the sound detected by the observer as the ambulance passes the observer? A equal to f and decreasing B equal to f and increasing C greater than f and constant D less than f and constant

25

An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of 138 pm in a vacuum. To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wave belong? A radio wave B microwave C visible light D X-ray

26

A student investigates the polarisation of microwaves. The microwaves from the transmitter are vertically polarised. A metal grille acts as a polarising filter when placed between the microwave transmitter and the receiver. The reading on the voltmeter is proportional to the intensity of microwaves transmitted through the grille. When the transmission axis of the grille is vertical, the voltmeter reads 3.50 V. The grille is then rotated through an angle θ. The voltmeter now reads 2.20 V. What is θ? A 37.5∘ B 39.0∘ C 51.0∘ D 52.5∘

Figure 1 of 1 for question 26
27

Two waves superpose. A resultant wave pattern is formed. Which statement about the two waves must be correct? A They have the same amplitude. B They are of the same type. C They are transverse waves. D They travel in opposite directions.

28

A water wave passes through a gap in a harbour wall and diffracts. The gap has a width of 8 m. The wave travels directly towards the gap. For which wavelength is the diffraction of the wave greatest? A 1 m B 2 m C 4 m D 8 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 28
29

Light of wavelength 5.50×10−7 m from a laser is incident normally on a diffraction grating. The diffracted light is incident on a semicircular screen, as shown in the view from above. A total of 9 bright dots are formed on the screen. The grating is at the centre of the semicircle. The lines of the grating are vertical. The separation between adjacent lines in the grating is d. What is a possible value of d? A 2.25×10−6 m B 2.80×10−6 m C 4.40×10−6 m D 4.95×10−6 m

Figure 1 of 1 for question 29
30

Which quantity is given by the product of charge and electric potential difference? A current B energy transferred C power dissipated D resistance

31

The current in a filament lamp is increased. Which statement about the lamp is correct? A The brightness of the lamp decreases. B The potential difference across the filament decreases. C The resistance of the filament decreases. D The temperature of the filament increases.

32

A student builds the circuit shown. All the lamps are identical. Which lamp dissipates the most power? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 32
33

The resistance of a metal cube is measured by placing it between two parallel plates, as shown. The cube has volume V and is made of a material with resistivity ρ. The connections to the cube have negligible resistance. Which expression gives the electrical resistance of the metal cube between X and Y? A ρV13 B ρV23 C ρV13 D ρV23

Figure 1 of 1 for question 33
34

A circuit needs to be completed by connecting two resistors between points X and Y, as shown. The resistors can be connected in series or in parallel with each other. Which combination of resistors produces the least resistance between X and Y?

resistances of resistors / Ωtype of combination
A20 and 40parallel
B40 and 100parallel
C20 and 40series
D40 and 100series
Figure 1 of 2 for question 34
Figure 2 of 2 for question 34
35

The diagram shows a circuit that includes a cell with internal resistance. The switch is initially open. Which row describes the effects on currents I1 and I2 of closing the switch?

I1I2
Adecreasesdecreases
Bdecreasesstays the same
Cincreasesdecreases
Dincreasesstays the same
Figure 1 of 2 for question 35
Figure 2 of 2 for question 35
36

The diagram shows a circuit consisting of a cell and three resistors R1, R2 and R3. The cell has electromotive force (e.m.f.) 1.60 V and negligible internal resistance. The current in the cell is 0.64 A. The potential difference across R1 is 0.48 V. The current in R3 is 0.32 A. What is the resistance of R2? A 1.5 Ω B 2.5 Ω C 3.5 Ω D 5.0 Ω

Figure 1 of 1 for question 36
37

The diagram shows a potentiometer circuit used to compare the electromotive forces (e.m.f.), E1 and E2, of two cells. XY is a uniform resistance wire. The fixed resistor has resistance R. A sliding contact is moved along the wire XY. When the sliding contact is at position P, the galvanometer reads zero. The circuit is changed so that the galvanometer reads zero when the sliding contact is at a new position to the left of P. Which change could have been made to the circuit? A The wire XY was replaced with one of lower resistance. B E2 was increased. C E1 was decreased. D R was decreased.

Figure 1 of 1 for question 37
38

Nucleus P has 144 neutrons and 93 protons. Nucleus P is unstable and undergoes α-decay to form nucleus Q. Nucleus Q then undergoes β− decay to form nucleus R. Nucleus P is represented by point P on the graph. Which point on the graph represents nucleus R? A A B B C C D D

Figure 1 of 1 for question 38
39

The diagrams show the quark composition of four different hadrons. One of the hadrons is a Σ+ particle. It has a charge of +e, where e is the elementary charge. Which hadron could be the Σ+ particle?

Figure 1 of 4 for question 39
Figure 2 of 4 for question 39
Figure 3 of 4 for question 39
Figure 4 of 4 for question 39
40

Which type of particle is comprised of the most quarks? A antiquark B baryon C lepton D meson

Mark scheme

9702/13 · May/June 2024

Download PDF

Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: D

Question 3

Answer: B

Question 4

Answer: A

Question 5

Answer: C

Question 6

Answer: A

Question 7

Answer: D

Question 8

Answer: A

Question 9

Answer: A

Question 10

Answer: C

Question 11

Answer: B

Question 12

Answer: B

Question 13

Answer: C

Question 14

Answer: B

Question 15

Answer: A

Question 16

Answer: D

Question 17

Answer: C

Question 18

Answer: A

Question 19

Answer: B

Question 20

Answer: B

Question 21

Answer: C

Question 22

Answer: C

Question 23

Answer: C

Question 24

Answer: A

Question 25

Answer: D

Question 26

Answer: A

Question 27

Answer: B

Question 28

Answer: D

Question 29

Answer: A

Question 30

Answer: B

Question 31

Answer: D

Question 32

Answer: D

Question 33

Answer: C

Question 34

Answer: A

Question 35

Answer: C

Question 36

Answer: C

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: A

Question 39

Answer: D

Question 40

Answer: B

Questions

  1. 1
    Question 11 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  2. 2
    Question 21 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  3. 3
    Question 31 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  4. 4
    Question 41 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  5. 5
    Question 51 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  6. 6
    Question 61 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  7. 7
    Question 71 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  8. 8
    Question 81 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  9. 9
    Question 91 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  10. 10
    Question 101 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  11. 11
    Question 111 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  12. 12
    Question 121 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  13. 13
    Question 131 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  14. 14
    Question 141 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  15. 15
    Question 151 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  16. 16
    Question 161 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  17. 17
    Question 171 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  18. 18
    Question 181 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  19. 19
    Question 191 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  20. 20
    Question 201 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  21. 21
    Question 211 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  22. 22
    Question 221 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  23. 23
    Question 231 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  24. 24
    Question 241 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  25. 25
    Question 251 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  26. 26
    Question 261 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  27. 27
    Question 271 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  28. 28
    Question 281 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  29. 29
    Question 291 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  30. 30
    Question 301 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  31. 31
    Question 311 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  32. 32
    Question 321 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  33. 33
    Question 331 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  34. 34
    Question 341 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  35. 35
    Question 351 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  36. 36
    Question 361 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  37. 37
    Question 371 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  38. 38
    Question 381 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  39. 39
    Question 391 mark
    Mark scheme ›
  40. 40
    Question 401 mark
    Mark scheme ›

More 9702 papers

Other papers from May/June 2024

Solve it on ExamPalStart