IGCSE Chemistry 0620 Paper 23, Oct/Nov 2024

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0620/23 · Oct/Nov 2024

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1

A sample of ethanol is left in an open beaker at room temperature. After 24 hours, no ethanol remains in the beaker. What has happened to the ethanol? A It has boiled. B It has condensed. C It has evaporated. D It has frozen.

2

A gas is in a sealed container with a fixed volume. Which statements describe what happens to the molecules in the gas when the temperature is increased? 1 They move more slowly. 2 They collide with the walls of the container more frequently. 3 They collide with the walls of the container with less force. 4 They have greater kinetic energy. A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

3

What happens when sodium atoms combine with chlorine atoms to form sodium chloride? A Sodium atoms each gain one electron, and chlorine atoms each lose one electron. B Sodium atoms each lose one electron, and chlorine atoms each gain one electron. C Sodium atoms and chlorine atoms share one electron with each other. D Sodium atoms and chlorine atoms share two electrons with each other.

4

The table shows some properties of four substances.

substancemelting pointelectrical conductivitywhen solidelectrical conductivitywhen molten
1highpoorpoor
2highpoorgood
3lowpoorpoor
4highgoodgood

Which substances are ionic? A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 D 2 only

5

Which statement about methane is correct? A In methane, positive hydrogen ions are attracted to negative carbon ions. B In methane, electrons are shared between carbon atoms and hydrogen atoms. C Methane has a high boiling point. D Methane is a good conductor of electricity.

6

A sample of iridium has a relative atomic mass of 192.29. The sample contains two isotopes only. 64.50% of the sample is 193Ir. What is the other isotope in the sample? A 189Ir B 190Ir C 191Ir D 192Ir

7

Ammonium iron(III) citrate contains in its formula: • more than one ammonium ion • one iron ion • two C6H4O74− ions. What is the formula of ammonium iron(III) citrate? A (NH4)4Fe(C6H4O7)2 B (NH4)5Fe(C6H4O7)2 C (NH4)6Fe(C6H4O7)2 D (NH4)7Fe(C6H4O7)2

8

Silicon(IV) oxide reacts with chlorine and carbon to form liquid silicon(IV) chloride, SiCl4, and carbon dioxide gas. If the reaction is carried out at r.t.p., which symbol equation represents this reaction? A SiO2(l)+2Cl2(g)+C(s)→SiCl4(l)+CO2(g) B SiO2(l)+2Cl2(g)+C(g)→SiCl4(l)+CO2(g) C SiO2(s)+2Cl2(g)+C(s)→SiCl4(g)+CO2(g) D SiO2(s)+2Cl2(g)+C(s)→SiCl4(l)+CO2(g)

9

The structure of ethene is shown. How many hydrogen atoms and how many carbon atoms are in one mole of ethene?

hydrogen atomscarbon atoms
A2.4×10241.2×1024
B2.4×10246.0×1023
C6.0×10231.2×1022
D6.0×10236.0×1023
Figure 1 of 1 for question 9
10

A known volume and concentration of aqueous sodium hydroxide is titrated against dilute hydrochloric acid. The volume of dilute hydrochloric acid needed to exactly neutralise the sodium hydroxide is measured. Five calculation steps are shown. 1 Calculate the amount of hydrochloric acid in moles. 2 Calculate the relative formula mass of hydrochloric acid. 3 Calculate the concentration of hydrochloric acid in g/dm3. 4 Calculate the amount of sodium hydroxide in moles. 5 Calculate the concentration of hydrochloric acid in mol/dm3. What is the order of these steps to calculate the concentration of the hydrochloric acid in g/dm3? A 1→4→3→5→2 B 1→2→4→5→3 C 4→1→5→2→3 D 4→2→1→3→5

11

Two different substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes in two separate experiments. Hydrogen is produced in both experiments. Which row identifies the two substances and the electrode at which hydrogen is produced?

substance 1substance 2electrode
Amolten sodium chlorideaqueous sodium chlorideanode
Bmolten sodium chlorideaqueous sodium chloridecathode
Cdilute sulfuric acidconcentrated hydrochloric acidanode
Ddilute sulfuric acidconcentrated hydrochloric acidcathode
12

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate can be electrolysed using either carbon electrodes or copper electrodes. Which statement describes what happens at the positive electrode? A Copper is deposited if the electrode is made from carbon. B Copper is deposited if the electrode is made from copper. C Oxygen gas is produced if the electrode is made from carbon. D Oxygen gas is produced if the electrode is made from copper.

13

Which statement about a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell is not correct? A Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. B Hydrogen is oxidised. C The reaction that takes place is endothermic. D Water is the only chemical product.

14

Which reaction pathway diagram is correctly labelled? A Reaction pathway diagram with reactants, products, Ea, ΔH B Reaction pathway diagram with reactants, products, Ea, ΔH C Reaction pathway diagram with reactants, products, Ea, ΔH D Reaction pathway diagram with reactants, products, Ea, ΔH

Figure 1 of 4 for question 14
Figure 2 of 4 for question 14
Figure 3 of 4 for question 14
Figure 4 of 4 for question 14
15

Which row describes a reaction where the overall energy change is exothermic?

energy needed forbreaking bonds/kJenergy released byforming bonds/kJtemperature ofthe surroundings
A600300decreases
B6001200decreases
C900300increases
D9001200increases
16

Which process involves a physical change only? A heating calcium carbonate strongly B burning wood C melting an ice cube D mixing an acid and a base

17

In the Haber process, an equilibrium is established. N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g) The forward reaction is exothermic. Which change to the reaction conditions will move the position of equilibrium to the left? A decreasing the pressure by 100 atm B decreasing the temperature by 100 °C C adding more nitrogen gas to the mixture D removing the iron catalyst

18

The flow chart shows some properties of a metal oxide. What is the metal oxide? A aluminium oxide B copper(II) oxide C iron(III) oxide D zinc oxide

Figure 1 of 1 for question 18
19

Which statement about reactants in redox reactions is correct? A An oxidising agent donates electrons, and a reducing agent accepts electrons. B When one element gains electrons, the oxidation number of a different element increases. C When the oxidation number of one element increases, a different element gains oxygen. D When the oxidation number of one element increases, a different element loses electrons.

20

Aluminium is extracted from aluminium oxide by electrolysis. The ionic half-equation for the reaction at one of the electrodes is shown. Al3++3e−→Al Which row describes the change in oxidation number of the aluminium and the type of reaction at this electrode?

change in oxidationnumber of aluminiumtype of reaction
Adecreasereduction
Bdecreaseoxidation
Cincreasereduction
Dincreaseoxidation
Figure 1 of 1 for question 20
21

Which statement about dilute hydrochloric acid is correct? A It is a strong acid as it fully dissociates. B It is a strong acid as it partially dissociates. C It is a weak acid as it fully dissociates. D It is a weak acid as it partially dissociates.

22

Which row describes and gives the formula of hydrated copper(II) sulfate?

description ofhydrated copper(II) sulfateformula ofhydrated copper(II) sulfate
Aaqueous copper(II) sulfateCuSO4⋅5H2O
Baqueous copper(II) sulfateCuSO4(aq)
Ccopper(II) sulfate chemicallycombined with water moleculesCuSO4(aq)
Dcopper(II) sulfate chemicallycombined with water moleculesCuSO4⋅5H2O
23

The equations for three reactions are shown. 1 Pb(NO3)2(aq)+2KI(aq)→PbI2(s)+2KNO3(aq) 2 2AgNO3(aq)+CuI2(aq)→Cu(NO3)2(aq)+2AgI(s) 3 CuO(s)+H2SO4(aq)→CuSO4(aq)+H2O(l) Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation? A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

24

Acidified potassium dichromate(VI), K2Cr2O7, is used to oxidise ethanol, C2H5OH. The ionic equation for the reaction is shown. 3C2H5OH+2Cr2O72−+16H+→3CH3COOH+4Cr3++11H2O Which properties of transition elements are shown by chromium in this reaction?

acts asa catalystvariableoxidationnumber
A✓✓
B✓x
Cx✓
Dxx
25

Which statements describe the Periodic Table? 1 The elements are arranged in order of their nucleon number. 2 The elements are arranged in order of their proton number. 3 It is used to predict the properties of elements. A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

26

Which row shows the correct order of reactivity of the four named metals?

most reactiveleast reactive
Amagnesiumcopperzincsilver
Bmagnesiumzinccoppersilver
Csilvercopperzincmagnesium
Dsilverzinccoppermagnesium
27

Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions. In which solution does a displacement reaction occur? A copper(II) sulfate B magnesium sulfate C sodium sulfate D zinc sulfate

28

A fertiliser contains ammonium nitrate and potassium phosphate. Why is the fertiliser described as an NPK fertiliser? A It provides nitrogen, which is an essential element for improved plant growth. B It contains the element oxygen, which neutralises acidic soil. C It contains the elements nitrogen and phosphorus. D It provides the three main elements needed for improved plant growth.

29

What are the approximate percentages of oxygen and nitrogen in clean, dry air?

percentageof oxygenpercentageof nitrogen
A1980
B2178
C8019
D7821
30

Which compounds have similar chemical properties? A butanol and butanoic acid B ethane and ethene C methane and butane D propene and propanol

31

Four statements about organic compounds P, Q, R and S are listed. P is a saturated hydrocarbon. The formula of Q is CH3CH3. A molecule of R contains only one oxygen atom. Compound S is a carboxylic acid. Which statement about these compounds is correct? A P and Q are members of different homologous series. B P and S are members of the same homologous series. C Q and S are members of the same homologous series. D Q, R and S are all members of different homologous series.

32

The structure of an organic compound is shown. What is the name of the compound? A chloroethane B chloroethene C chloroethanol D chloroethanoic acid

33

Which statement about the manufacture of ethene from larger alkane molecules is correct? A A low temperature is required. B The process is called cracking. C The process requires an excess of oxygen. D Water is also a product.

34

Which processes are used to make ethanoic acid? 1 heating ethanol with acidified aqueous potassium manganate(VII) 2 bacterial oxidation of ethanol 3 distilling ethanol using a fractionating column A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

35

Which statement about propene, C3H6, is correct? A Propene reacts with bromine in the dark in a substitution reaction. B Propene reacts with steam in the presence of an alkaline catalyst, forming an alcohol. C Propene undergoes addition polymerisation, forming poly(ethene). D Propene undergoes an addition reaction to form an alkane.

36

How many of each type of bond are present in ethanoic acid, CH3COOH?

type of bond
C–HC–CC=O
A311
B302
C402
D412
37

Which diagram represents the structure of a protein?

Figure 1 of 1 for question 37
38

The chromatogram of substance S is shown. Some distances, W, X, Y and Z, are labelled on the diagram. How is the Rf value of substance S calculated? A XY B WZ C YX D YW

Figure 1 of 1 for question 38
39

Some information about solid silver chloride and solid sodium chloride is shown. • Silver chloride and sodium chloride do not dissolve in kerosene. • Silver chloride is insoluble in water, but sodium chloride is soluble in water. • The boiling point of silver chloride is 1547 °C and the boiling point of sodium chloride is 1413 °C. Which processes are used to separate a mixture of solid silver chloride and solid sodium chloride? A add kerosene, stir and then filter B add water, stir and then filter C add water, stir and then leave to crystallise D add water, stir and then perform fractional distillation

40

Which statement describes how a flame test is done? A The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a blue Bunsen burner flame. B The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a yellow Bunsen burner flame. C A wooden splint is lit and is placed above a test-tube containing the gas being tested. D A wooden splint is lit, blown out and the glowing splint put into a test-tube of the gas being tested.

Mark scheme

0620/23 · Oct/Nov 2024

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Question 1

Answer: C

Question 2

Answer: D

Question 3

Answer: B

Question 4

Answer: D

Question 5

Answer: B

Question 6

Answer: C

Question 7

Answer: B

Question 8

Answer: D

Question 9

Answer: A

Question 10

Answer: C

Question 11

Answer: D

Question 12

Answer: C

Question 13

Answer: C

Question 14

Answer: A

Question 15

Answer: D

Question 16

Answer: C

Question 17

Answer: A

Question 18

Answer: D

Question 19

Answer: B

Question 20

Answer: A

Question 21

Answer: A

Question 22

Answer: D

Question 23

Answer: A

Question 24

Answer: C

Question 25

Answer: C

Question 26

Answer: B

Question 27

Answer: A

Question 28

Answer: D

Question 29

Answer: B

Question 30

Answer: C

Question 31

Answer: D

Question 32

Answer: A

Question 33

Answer: B

Question 34

Answer: A

Question 35

Answer: D

Question 36

Answer: A

Question 37

Answer: D

Question 38

Answer: C

Question 39

Answer: B

Question 40

Answer: A

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